Q207. Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

Q208. Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Q209. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented?
(Choose two)

Q210. You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.
Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?

Q211. Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

Q212. Which option about JSON is true?

Q213. Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.

Q214. IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Q215. Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Q216. Refer to the exhibit.

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Q217. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?

Q218. Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Q219. Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Q220. What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security? (Choose two.)

Q221. Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D.
What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

Q222. Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Q223. Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

Q224. Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

Q225. Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Q226. Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

Q227. When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Q228. Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?

Q229. Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.